Monday, April 21, 2014

Atheism Refuted: Lack of Evidence is Not Evidence of Absence

Can something exist without any evidence?

Yes,  for example the Higgs Boson existed before there was any evidence for it, meaning Evidence isn't required for something to exist, meaning Lack of Evidence is Not Evidence of Absence, as if it was  then the Higgs Boson wouldn't exist due to lack of evidence.

Evidence of Absence is Positive evidence, not negative evidence,

The Reason you don't believe that I'm kangaroo is not because of the Lack of Evidence, but because of the Positive evidence that I'm not a kangaroo, the Positive evidence that I'm a Human Being.

Since Lack of Evidence is not Evidence of Absence, the claim that "God doesn't exist" due to lack of evidence is therefore false, and atheism is an impossible worldview,

in order for anyone to be justified in their atheist worldview, they would need positive evidence that God "doesn't exist", which there is no evidence for, rendering atheism unreasonable, and a blind faith.

The least a lack of evidence can  lead to is neutrality, however this is also impossible too, as there is no lack of evidence, there is objective evidence for YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) and He is proven to exist(http://www.reasonablefaith.org/does-god-exist-1),

Monday, February 10, 2014

Age of the Universe Problem... Refuted.

People seem to think that the Bible tells us how long the Universe has existed, it never does, lets demonstrate,

Genesis 1:1 - " In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 

So the heavens and earth, basically the Universe came into existence

And then

Genesis 1:2 The earth was [a]formless and void, and darkness was over the [b]surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was [c]moving over the [d]surface of the waters. 

So the Universe came into existence as said in Genesis 1:1

Then Genesis 1:2 says the earth was formless and void and YHWH starts forming the earth,

Now, does it say how long YHWH took from bringing the universe into existence and forming/putting the earth together?

No, it doesn't say a billion years, it doesn't say 6,000 years, all it says is that YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) caused the universe into existence and then started forming/putting together the earth and caused humanity to exist.

Never does it say how long it took from the Universe coming to existence to when the earth was formed.

So whatever date to the Universe's existence we find would be compatible with the Bible,

However we won't know until YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) tells us, as we didn't live since the start of the universe and therefore do not know how old the universe is.

We do know however from the bible that the Earth was put together(Not came in existence, but Formed/Put together) around 6,000 years ago. we do not know however how old the universe.

Radiocarboning dating is invalid as it relies on assumptions and is therefore unscientific and not objective. saying you know how old the universe is, is like saying you know Hitler, we weren't there and do not know.

The Bible however is proven true, and we at least know how long ago the earth was formed.

Monday, January 20, 2014

Homosexuality is not a Sin (Irrefutable)

Before we get to proving that Homosexuality isn't a sin, learn what Sin means according to the Bible in this post -->savedbychrist94.blogspot.com/2013/10/what-is-sin.html


Now lets get to the passages which people claim condemn homosexuality, but actually do not.


Romans 1:24-27 actually condemns the person who's arguing against Homosexuality, just like Romans 7, Paul uses a hypothetical Opponent and refutes them http://afkimel.wordpress.com/2013/08/01/ruminating-romans-was-paul-a-diatribalist/

So that passage is actually Pro-gay, read the link above.




Next up, Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13

I already proved it isn't a sin here but will write it again, http://savedbychrist94.blogspot.com/2013/04/homosexuality-is-not-sin-part-1.html

Leviticus 18:22 says in original language/hebrew, " V"et-zachar lo tishkav mishk"vei ishah to"evah hu."

and Leviticus 20:13 says, "V'ish asher yishkav et zachar mishk'vei ishah to'evah asu shneihem mot yumatu d'meihem bam"

Breakdown,

lets use 20:13 as it 's basically Leviticus 18:22 but with more words,

V'ish - And male
asher - Who
yishkav - lie down
et - with
zachar - male
mishk'vei (mishk'av)- Beds/lyings
ishah - woman/wife
to'evah - abomination/abhorrent/ritually unclean
asu - Do
shneihem - both of them
mot - dying
yumatu - they will die
d'meihem - their blood (or blood of them)
bam - on them (or them)

Now here's the key, mishk"vei ishah which means Lyings of Woman, what is one of the meanings?

According to Hebrews/Jews http://www.myjewishlearning.com/blog/keshet/2013/04/15/parashat-aharei-mot-and-parashat-kedoshim-you-shall-be-holy/ it is Plural(Lyings) because it either refers to Vaginal, or Anal penetration.


Since men do not have vaginas, it is used here to mean Anal penetration, hence why it says do not lie(sex) with mankind As With Womankind, it doesn't say "don't have sex with mankind", it says As With, this was the best way they could describe Anal Penetration in King James English, so Homosexual sex isn't condemned, penetrating a man as you would a woman is, the way you'd penetration a man as a woman, would be Anal Penetration, Now,  add that to the fact that this is right after the verse about a False "god" molech and we see that what's condemned is Anal Penetration For False gods:


Leviticus 18:21-30:21 And thou shalt not let any of thy seed pass through the fire to Molech, neither shalt thou profane the name of thy God: I am the Lord.

22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
23 Neither shalt thou lie with any beast to defile thyself therewith: neither shall any woman stand before a beast to lie down thereto: it is confusion.
24 Defile not ye yourselves in any of these things: for in all these the nations are defiled which I cast out before you:
25 And the land is defiled: therefore I do visit the iniquity thereof upon it, and the land itself vomiteth out her inhabitants.
26 Ye shall therefore keep my statutes and my judgments, and shall not commit any of these abominations; neither any of your own nation, nor any stranger that sojourneth among you:
27 (For all these abominations have the men of the land done, which were before you, and the land is defiled;)
28 That the land spue not you out also, when ye defile it, as it spued out the nations that were before you.
29 For whosoever shall commit any of these abominations, even the souls that commit them shall be cut off from among their people.
30 Therefore shall ye keep mine ordinance, that ye commit not any one of these abominable customs, which were committed before you, and that ye defile not yourselves therein: I am the Lord your God.

So they were forbidden from doing the Abominable Customs of the other lands. 


mishk"vei ishah has another meaning as well, arensokoitaies is the Greek translation in the Septuagint of mishk"vei ishah. mishk"vei ishah = arensokoitaies, arsenokoités as proven below is 


So mishk has to do with abuse and shrine prostitution(where Anal Penetration after verse about False idol molech is condemned in Leviticus) 


 Homosexuality is not condemned in Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13, Anal penetration is. therefore there's not one instance of Homosexuality being condemned in The Old testament.


Now the final two verses that are supposedly against homosexuality,

1 Timothy 1:8-11 and 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 also use the word 
arsenokoités

1 Timothy 1:8-11 - The word mistakenly translated into "homosexuals" is arsenokoités

1 Corinthians 6:9-11 - The word mistakenly translated into "homosexuals" is 
arsenokoités


Quote by GodRules"In the KJV it says "abusers of themselves with mankind". This is one of the only versions that actually gets it remotely correct on 1 Corinthians 6:9-10. The ancient Greek term is hard to find in Greek literature, but when it has been used it denotes sort of a class struggle thing, where a person in a HIGHER POSITION abuses someone in a LOWER position.. 

Also, the term has another more known meaning in shrine prostitution. Where a male would castrate themselves and be on the receiving end of sex unto a false god, such as Cybele or Molech (as can be seen with how Philo uses the term in his works). 

Philo, The Special Laws, III, VII, 40-41: 

"(40) And I imagine that the cause of this is that among many nations there are actually rewards given for intemperance and effeminacy. At all events one may see men-women (androgynes) continually strutting through the market place at midday, and leading the processions in festivals; 

and, impious men as they are, having received by lot the charge of the temple, and beginning the sacred and initiating rites, and concerned even in the holy mysteries of Ceres(Cybele)"

This indicates they were in charge of the Temple unto Cybele. This was part of the term (which can not be separated). 

NOW, regarding the first definition(abuse of someone lower than you), which I mentioned, only a few ancient Greek texts use it in such a way (Sibylline Oracle 2.70-77.10 - one of the more ancient texts that we have using the term).

http://www.clgs.org/arsenokoit%C3%A9s-and-malakos-meanings-and-consequences

Section "On Justice" from Sibylline Oracle 2:

"(Never accept in your hand a gift which derives from unjust deeds.)

Do not steal seeds. Whoever takes for himself is accursed (to generations of generations, to the scattering of life.

Do not arsenokoitein, do not betray information, do not murder.) Give one who has labored his wage. Do not oppress a poor man. Take heed of your speech. Keep a secret matter in your heart. (Make provision for orphans and widows and those in need.)

Do not be willing to act unjustly, and therefore do not give leave to one who is acting unjustly."

This would qualify "slave owners" from the 19th Century, due to how they abused slaves. 

"Abusers of themselves with mankind" WERE slave owners!!!

But, guess what? Now, we are to believe it is referring to "homosexuals" or those who are gay.

This is dishonest.. The only definition that is related to "homosexuality" is one that also includes "false god worship" as part of the definition.. First, basically no homosexuals castrate themselves.. Second, they are not worshipping false gods such as Cybele while having sex!"


So both the verses have the word arsenokoitai which is translated so wrongly to meaning "gay/homosexual"

arsenokoitai does not mean gay, the word is used in the greek translation of the Old testament/Septuagint, to translate both Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13


So Romans 1, Leviticus, 1 Corinthians and 1 Timothy do not condemn homosexuality,

There we have it, Homosexuality is therefore never once condemned in The Bible. 


Unbelievers need to repent and start loving gay people, and gay people you can now become Christians while remaining gay and being in a gay relationship, never condemned and YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) doesn't care about that, what He is sad about is anyone who rejects Him and and harms others, that's the problem, not homosexuality.