Thursday, April 25, 2013

The Resurrection of Jesus Christ is a Fact: Part 1, Historical Fact

I first posted this back when I was on The Christian Forums(which I will be allowed back in June, later this year)

Going through every "naturalistic" myth and will leave The Resurrection as The Only Explanation, not best or most probable but Only Explanation.

proving that Jesus Christ existed and there was an empty tomb factually follows that He rose from the dead.

myth theory - 

Different points of views, no contradiction from The Apostles means events happened. miracles are authentic as they are written in witness and have evidence of addition, exaggeration, or lies.

Josephus proves Jesus Christ was crucified, no matter what you say this man was a Jew, had no biased or presupposition.

Nazareth Inscription proves empty tomb.

Women found the tomb empty, this irrefutable, criteria of embarrassment

Matthew 28:11-18 proves without a doubt there was an empty tomb, Matthew refutes the Jews, no matter what you say or what you think he REFUTES what the Jews were saying, which proves, the Jews were claiming they stole the tomb. a common presupposition and excuse.

My fellow Christians told the truth of The Resurrection and the Jews spread the stolen tomb myth, either way EMPTY TOMB, of who? Jesus Christ, why was there a tomb? He was crucified, why? because the Jews thought He committed blasphemy why was there an empty tomb? we will get to that next. Apostles died for their beliefs and appearances are genuine(will get to it next)

"myth theory" is long gone and dead. if you EVER claim myth then you are a presuppositional delusional hypocritical, the words could go on and on.

myth "theory" is now an impossible myth.

conspiracy theory - 1, No one could have stolen the tomb as it was blocked by roman guards.

2, Apostles had nothing to gain, criteria of embarrassment, they were shamed and were against all evil, sin.

3, They died for their beliefs, 11 of the 12 Apostles died for their beliefs, no one dies for a known lie, they really believed in The Resurrection added that with the facts of the appearances.

4, Appearances to Women, proves Apostles were telling the truth

5, James, the brother of Jesus Christ in The Gospels is a skeptic, outside of it he's a believer(Letters, Church, and Josephus) Jesus had to have appeared to him.

6, Paul, a prosecutor of Christians becomes a Christian himself and becomes a leading preacher of Christianity going through all kinds of suffering and ultimately death for his beliefs.

7, Apostles believed in The Resurrection despite every predispostion to the contrary, no one believed The Messiah was going to die, be God, or much less Resurrect from the dead. no one believed in The Resurrection until the end of world, the general Resurrection.

Apostles believed The Resurrection happened, myth and conspiracy theories are now myths, if you want to argue you can only use your last 3 "naturalistic" myths when arguing with me because the myth and conspiracy theories are dead myths now, using them or believing them exposes you as a hypocrite as those are now Impossible Explanations.

Now we have a few facts,

Jesus Christ was crucified

There was an Empty Tomb
Jesus Christ appeared alive after His death to several people
Apostles really believed in The Resurrection

last 3 which are easily refutatable.

"twin brother/lookalike" theory - Apostles knew Jesus, saw Him perform more miracles, Empty Tomb and no one could have stolen the tomb, had same wounds, no known twin brother as James, Jesus half brother, would take that into consideration. and theory is a stretch.

"twin brother/lookalike" theory is a myth

swoon theory - Apostles saw Jesus Christ die, He was anointed, stabbed in chest pouring blood and water confirming death, romans made sure you die when crucified, even if survived would have been impossible to escape tomb, would've died later, would not convince apostles, and Jesus Christ Ascended. 

swoon theory is now a myth

last theory that if I disprove I prove The Resurrection happened.

hallucination theory - Apostles were in their right minds, died for their beliefs, hallucinations are fast and quick, Thomas for example put his hand in Jesus side, you don't have multiple hallucinations about the same thing, and finally multiple people do not hallucinate about the same thing.

EVERY Single "naturalistic" "theory" has been made a myth of.

There is one Irrefutable Explanation, not the best but The Only Explanation is that Jesus Christ died on the cross and Resurrected from the dead, therefore proving everything in The Bible as a fact.

Jesus Christ Resurrected from the dead.

add that with The Shroud which has no evidence of forgery, not a painting, cannot be reproduced with any type of technology, and caused by a burst of light from the dead body causing an image like a photography. and recently - Carbon Testing has been refuted,

God's existence and failure of other religions making Christianity the only possibility, Physical evidence in The Shroud and Only Explanation being The Resurrection, it is indeniable, God Exists, Jesus Christ is Lord, Jesus Christ is the 2nd person of God, and that God is YHWH who is The Trinity of The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit.

It's not Hard to follow Jesus Christ

People always come up with the typical Building Which They Call "Church" doctrine that following Jesus Christ is hard and suffering, no no no, this will cause others to stumble and question YHWH/Jesus Christ Love.

They teach that "no one can fulfill Old Law, so Jesus Christ fulfilled it for us", which is a lie from satan and is very dangerous.

1, Penal Substitution isn't True,

2, The Law isn't Hard to Follow,

Deuteronomy 30:11 -  "For this commandment which I command you today is not too difficult for you, nor is it out of reach."

Matthew 11:28-30 Come to Me, all [a]who are weary and heavy-laden, and I will give you rest. 29 Take My yoke upon you and learn from Me, for I am gentle and humble in heart, and you will find rest for your souls. 30 For My yoke is easy and My burden is light.”

1 John 5:3 For this is the love of God, that we keep His commandments; and His commandments are not burdensome.(The word for burdensome here is the greek word, βαρεῖαι, transliteration = bareiai, which can mean, heavy, weighty, burdensome, lit. and met; violent, oppressive. )

So when someone says YHWH's commandments are hard or that He fulfilled it for us, then they don't have the truth, You need to follow the commandments to be Saved and they are Easy, they are only hard if you don't desire it,  hate good, don't  believe, and are of satan.

No sin is fun, that is what I prove in my next Post(s).

Tuesday, April 23, 2013

Victor Strenger lied

From his book called, "How Science Shows That God Does Not Exist." page 18 of his book he says "we can be pretty sure that God does not exist." 

1st I would ask him, where's your proof for this assertion? he don't have none, because there is no evidence against YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) who is God.

then page 264 he says ""I admit there are logically possible gods. But none is the God most people worship.""

,  Strenger in a debate said at 1:07 of this video,

"Theists might respond that God’s actions are obvious to those who wish to see them. Well I would love to see them, but they’re not obvious to me or to the millions of other nonbelievers."

then he says in his book God: The Failed Hypothesis page 241

""All I can say is that we have not one iota of evidence that he exists and, if he does exist, I personally want nothing to do with him. This is a possible god, but a hideous one.""

So he says he would love to see YHWH's Works and miracles in a debate and on the other hand says he wants nothing to do with Him.

Victor Strenger lied

Saturday, April 20, 2013

Homosexuality is not a Sin Part 1: Leviticus 18:22 and Leviticus 20:13 Do not even Mention Homosexuality

Leviticus 18:22 in Hebrew ואת זכר לא תשכב משכבי אשה תועבה הוא

Transliteration - V"et-zachar lo tishkav mishk"vei ishah to"evah hu.

Leviticus 20:13 Hebrew - ואיש אשר ישכב את זכר משכבי אשה תועבה עשו שניהם מות יומתו דמיהם בם

Transliteration - V'ish asher yishkav et zachar mishk'vei ishah to'evah asu shneihem mot yumatu d'meihem bam


lets use 20:13 as it has the extra stuff,

V'ish - And male
asher - Who
yishkav - lie down
et - with
zachar - male
mishk'vei (mishk'av)- Beds/lyings
ishah - woman/wife
to'evah - abomination/abhorrent/ritually unclean
asu - Do
shneihem - both of them
mot - dying
yumatu - they will die
d'meihem - their blood (or blood of them)
bam - on them (or them)

And that equates to, "and male who lie down with male beds/lyings woman/wife abomination do both of them dying they will die their blood on them

and then, "and a male who lies down with a male the beds of a woman (or wife), both of them do an abomination; Dying they will die, their blood is upon them'."
Why is this significant? Lets go talmud here for a sec,

sanhedrin 54A as a reference to anal sex,

and then this proves it all,

[quote] The task was especially difficult because there is little controversy in the rabbinic tradition on the meaning of Leviticus 18:22. While it is translated in various ways, the basic meaning has always seemed pretty clear: "And with a male you shall not lie the lyings of a woman, it is an abomination." The only difficult phrase is mishkeve isha (usually parsed as "the lyings of a woman"), because the phrase appears nowhere else in the Bible. A similar phrase, the lying of a male (mishkav zachar), appears in Numbers 31:18 and is understood to mean what women experience in intercourse, i.e. penile penetration. Consequently, mishkeve isha is what men experience in intercourse, that is, penile engulfment. If so, then the verse prohibits a man from lying with a male in such a way that his penis is engulfed in the other man"s body. And where is a man penetrable? Here the rabbis make use of the fact that the word lyings is in the plural form. The lyings of a woman are plural because she may be penetrated vaginally or anally. A man, missing the vagina, is singly penetrable anally. Consequently, for millennia the tradition understood that Leviticus 18:22 prohibited anal intercourse between men and Leviticus 20:13 reiterated and punished the crime with death by stoning.

By far the most intriguing element of the puzzle is the fact that lesbian relations are totally unaddressed in the Torah. The only explanation of this lacuna is that the Torah is utterly uninterested in "homosexuality" per se. The sameness of the sex (homo=same) that so dominates contemporary thought in regard to homosexuality is missing here. Instead, there is something about anal sex between men that is at the center of the biblical concern. Of course the obvious question is just this: Why does the Torah consider anal sex between men to be such a problem?{/QUOTE]

1, So the verse condemns Penetration, aka Anal sex. if it condemned Homosexuality it would say SEXUAL RELATIONS as did the previous verses against Incest and Bestiality, Leviticus 18:22/20:13 and the verse against sex during menstration though are Specific with detail, for example Menstration verse doesn't say "don't have sex with women", it says don't have sex during menstration, likewise this verse says don't have anal sex with another man.

YHWH would've either said sexual relations, have mentioned lesbianism(as in the condemnation of bestiality YHWH told women Also not to do it), and

Anal sex is is detrimental to Anyone(not just Homosexuals, look up women who did porn and have to sadly wear a diaper), it's no good so either this reason is why it's condemned or it was condemned for cultural reasons and is no longer sin(For example Leviticus isn't all Universal Moral laws, it does contain Dietry and Sacrifice laws for Israel Only(Don't eat pork, etc which were for Israelites only), contrary to False Doctrine, we ARE under Law, we aren't under Israel laws like circumision, look up New Perspective on Paul, this is what was argued, Old Testament God even tells us He'd rather have MERCY than Sacrifice in Isaiah 1 and Hosea 6:6)

All Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 condemn is Anal Sex, AT MOST, if not then Temple Prostitution.

That's why KJV(Don't like this translation by the way) renders it,

Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.

Leviticus 20:13 If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.

As with womankind/as he lieth with a woman as proven means Anal sex, which is cool as this probably means YHWH either assumes one is ALREADY gay or doesn't care, He just says, no anal sex.

Leviticus 18:22 doesn't mean Homosexuality or Homosexual behavior in General, it was a condemnation of Anal sex, in order for my opponent to be valid he must refute every single point given.


1,Whoever claims that Anal sex is ok is in the wrong, Homosexuality isn't wrong, however Anal sex(No matter what your orientation) is, according to medical experts  harmful,

If you still insist on Anal sex then your arguing for something proven to harm and something that most people who are Homosexual don't even do,

2, Whoever says "Since anal sex is prohibited, All Homosexuality is prohibited" is wrong as well

1, Anal sex isn't a Homosexual Exclusive act, even Straight people can have male to male anal sex

2, if one specific sexual act condemns the whole Sexual Orientation and other forms of Sex, then according that Distorted Logic, All Heterosexual Sex is condemned because Heterosexual sex during a womans Menstruation is condemned(Leviticus 18:19

Straight sex during Menstruation doesn't prohibit All Straight sex, likewise Male to Male(Straight or Gay) Anal sex doesn't prohibit for example Male-to-Male Oral sex, as Homosexuality or homosexual acts  are never prohibited.

There you go folks, no where in Israelite Law is Homosexuality prohibited. YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) isin deed no burden, 1 John 5:3, now to anyone who is gay, be free, come to YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit), He accepts you and only asks you to follow Matthew 7:12

Tuesday, April 16, 2013

2 Timothy 3:16 not proof for Inerrancy or Infalliblity

"All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness."

2 Timothy 3:16

It's too obvious, people have to open their eyes, All Scripture, keyword, ALL SCRIPTURE is Inerrant, if something is deemed an error or there is a forgery IT AIN'T SCRIPTURE, this verse cannot be used for The Inerrancy Doctrine. all the inerrancy doctrine does is cause others who hold to it or see it as a standard to stumble, why? because in Any Possible World where YHWH leaves His Word to sinful man, they will corrupt it, why didn't YHWH perserve them? Because you need The Holy Spirit, if you rely on Inerrancy as the basis for your knowing that YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) exists instead of The Holy Spirit then something needs correction.

The Fact is this, Errancy actually Proves that YHWH exists and that the Majority(or almost all) of the current canon(The Bible) is YHWH's Word.

Saturday, April 13, 2013

Islam is another term for Atheism

Fact 1, YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) is God

Fact 2, "atheism" is claimed to be a "lack of belief" or belief that no God exists.

Fact 3 muslims believe or supress the Truth of The Bible to believe in the fairy tales of "the quran" and a false "allah" created by someone named "muhammad"

Fact 4 Jesus Christ Resurrected from the dead,

Fact 5 "islam", "muslim", and "quran" do not adhere to YHWH(The Father, and The Son and The Holy Spirit) an d as YHWH Himself(Jesus Christ) said John 16:11 "and about judgment, because the prince of this world now stands condemned." serving no purpose for more prophets, teachings, etc from YHWH.

"quran" claims juda instead of Jesus Christ was crucified, this is Historically and Biblically(from Old Testament and New Testament) inaccurate.

"quran"(Surah (5) denies Trinity of YHWH(As He is The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) AND The Divinity of Jesus Christ, Fact of the matter is this, YHWH is One God, Multiple Persons(3), One Being,

And this goes all the way back to Genesis 1:26-27, GENESIS which All Abrahamic Religions believe, which calls God Yahweh(Genesis 27:20), says, 

YHWH is Multiple Persons yet 1,

Genesis 1:26 - "Then God said, “Let us make mankind in our image, in our likeness, so that they may rule over the fish in the sea and the birds in the sky, over the livestock and all the wild animals,[a] and over all the creatures that move along the ground.” 27 So God created mankind in His own image,
    in the image of God He created them;
    male and female He created them.

Jesus Christ/The Messiah is God Himself,

Jeremiah 23: 5-6 "The days are coming,” declares the Lord,
    “when I will raise up for David[a] a righteous Branch,
a King who will reign wisely
    and do what is just and right in the land.
In his days Judah will be saved
    and Israel will live in safety.
This is the name by which he will be called:
    The Lord Our Righteous Savior."

Jeremiah 31:31 - “The days are coming,” declares the Lord,
    “when I will make a new covenant
with the people of Israel
    and with the people of Judah."

Zechariah 2 - 10 “Shout and be glad, Daughter Zion. For I am coming, and I will live among you,” declares the Lord(YHWH) 11 “Many nations will be joined with the Lord in that day and will become my people. I will live among you and you will know that the Lord Almighty has sent me to you(Ding, Ding, Ding).12 The Lord will inherit Judah as his portion in the holy land and will again choose Jerusalem. 13 Be still before the Lord, all mankind, because he has roused himself from his holy dwelling.

That's the Old Testament Only Folks,

New Testament, "All this took place to fulfill what the Lord had said through the prophet: ‘The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Immanuel’—which means, ‘the God [is] with us (Meth hemon ho theos).’" Matthew 1:22-23

Now The Gospel of John, which I consider the Original, Most Authentic and Most Inspired Gospel,

John 1:1 - In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 

John 1:14- 14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Now this can be Translated into "The Word was a god" or The Word was God, however since there is no other god apart from the Real God, YHWH, the former cannot be the translation and The Translation is that The Word was God, there Jesus Christ since He is The Word(John 1:14) is God, Jesus Christ is YHWH.

Romans 10:9, If you declare with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Why is this significant? Well in Greek we have a Problem, The word for Lord in Greek(kurios) can mean Master or God so we have no way of knowing other than context or saying what it means explictly,

now Romans 10:9 makes it Crystal Clear that Kurios is used for YHWH/God,

Romans 10:9-13, that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord(kurios), and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;10for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.11For the Scripture says, “WHOEVER BELIEVES IN HIM WILL NOT BE DISAPPOINTED.12For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, abounding in riches for all who call on Him;13for “WHOEVER WILL CALL ON THE NAME OF THE LORD WILL BE SAVED.”


is from Joel 2:32 which says, And everyone who calls

    on the name of the Lord will be saved;
for on Mount Zion and in Jerusalem
    there will be deliverance,
    as the Lord has said,
even among the survivors
    whom the Lord calls.

So whatever The Word Lord means here is what it means to Jesus Christ in Romans 10,

The word for Lord here is YHWH, YHWH is therefore Jesus Christ.

"islam" is automatically false for those 2 reasons, 1 Denying Jesus Christ death and Resurrection 2, Denying Trinity and 3 Denying Jesus Christ Divinity.

Another reason is that "islam" says kill unbelievers, which DEFEATS THE PURPOSE OF RELIGION, YHWH allows finite suffering to Save others, the whole point of the world being sustained is so others could REPENT, killing the unrepentant before Judgement day is Self Defeating.

"islam" is false and doesn't believe in God, as God is YHWH.

Therefore "islam" is another word for "atheism" and muslims are "atheist" as they don't believe in YHWH(Deep down everyone really knows though)

"atheist" caused terrorism, 9/11, unnecessary wars, death etc and that's not to be disrespectful, it's just a fact, it was carried out by people who don't believe or "lack belief" in God(YHWH: The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit), therefore "atheism" caused terrorism and "atheist" and muslims, are in the same position.

Friday, April 5, 2013

Atheists Starvation Myths

Lots of "atheist" post pictures of kids starving in Africa in order to cause one to stumble in effort of their agenda, Thankfully we have Proof and Evidence that Man causes world hunger and that YHWH(The Father and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) provides more than enough food, very important link, from The Food and Agricultural Organisation themselves.

Everyone could be eating 3,500 calories or more right now, poor cultures and governments cause hunger.

America waste 40% of it's food and overeats(I'm guilty of this)

This has to stop, blaming YHWH when He continuously produces food and then it gets stripped is evil, point the fingers at the ones who took away the food and have poor systems.

Luke 6:21 - "Blessed are you who hunger now, for you will be satisfied. Blessed are you who weep now, for you will laugh." - Jesus Christ

Because without YHWH man is messed up and certainly man has caused starvation if one has YHWH(The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) in His heart there wouldn't be faulty governments and corruption such as this starvation caused by man, read the link, it's all there, 

But thankfully starvation is not painful,

Pain requires energy, as pain is in the nerves, those who are starving have less energy, therefore less or no pain, 

I'll quote from the link, 


The Situation Today- Hunger Amid Plenty

AS HEADS OF STATE and government gather in Rome for the World Food Summit, they can look with satisfaction on the progress that has been made in increasing food production and food security, with concern on the high levels of hunger and malnutrition that persist, and with dismay on the prospect that future progress will be slow and uneven.
After 30 years of rapid growth in agricultural production, the world can produce enough food to provide every person with more than 2 700 Calories per day a level which is normally sufficient to ensure that all have access to adequate food, provided distribution is not too unequal.
Yet more than 800 million people in the developing world suffer from chronic undernutrition. Lack of essential energy and protein stunts the bodies, minds and hopes of some 200 million children.
Over the past few years, world grain stocks have dwindled to dangerously low levels, highlighting the fragility of food supplies in a world where the population is expected to reach 7 billion people by the year 2010, almost double the 3.7 billion of 1970."

So we have enough food, starving people aren't in pain according to science(Don't fall for those propaganda pictures of starving kids, they most likely aren't true, unless you Believe they are real, I repeat Believe, because you have no idea if they're real, especially when logic tells you that if you see someone in this condition, you don't take a picture of them, you do something. just like if you see someone get raped, you don't stand there, you contact the authorities.)

So with that out the way, one question left, what about their death?

They don't feel pain, there's enough food, but they die, now what? 

Jesus Christ will resurrect them, their death will be nothing more than a sleep, they won't even realize it. so no problem here with YHWH, however under the depressing and unscientific ideas of atheism, it would be the end of their existence, that's the ideas we should shake our fists at, not God, why hate someone who doesn't harm but gives eternal life?

God(YHWH: The Father and The Son and The Holy Spirit) is moral despite atheists false claims, He helps the poor, doesn't have them get pain when they are starving, gives them eternal life. blame greedy men, who reject YHWH's Law of Matthew 7:12,

Matthew 7:12 - "In everything, therefore, treat people the same way you want them to treat you, for this is the Law and the Prophets." - Jesus Christ(YHWH)

Monday, April 1, 2013

Lust is Not a Sin

Thanks to Inspiration from Jason Staples, before you read this article, read my article, What is sin? to know what sin means according to the Bible/Scripture,

 Lust, sexual desire or/and sexual fantasies aren't a sin, YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) created it like food, false "atheistic" religions called YHWH's beauty a sin, I will prove it is not, do not let these religious secularist/"atheist"s fool you.

Matthew 5:27-28 in New International Version says, 27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[a] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

Sorry but in Biblical study we use The Language in which YHWH gave us His Word, not faulty translations from man. this NIV translation is deceiving.

The Original Matthew 5:27-28 says in Koine Greek,

Matthew 5:27–28: Ἠκούσατε ὅτι ἐρρέθη· οὐ μοιχεύσεις. ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι πᾶς ὁ βλέπων γυναῖκα πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ.

Key here is this part: πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι

transliteration, pros to epithumesai

pros to comes BEFORE epithumesai

so now just like these verses, where it would be rendered IN ORDER TO,

“Beware of practicing your righteousness before men in order to be noticed by them.” (Matt 6:1)

Original Greek - Προσέχετε [a]δὲ τὴν δικαιοσύνην ὑμῶν μὴ ποιεῖν ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων πρὸς τὸ θεαθῆναι αὐτοῖς· εἰ δὲ μή γε, μισθὸν οὐκ ἔχετε παρὰ τῷ πατρὶ ὑμῶν τῷ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς.

“… First gather up the tares and bind them in bundles in order to burn them up ….” (Matt 13:30)

Original Greek, 30 ἄφετε συναυξάνεσθαι ἀμφότερα [a]μέχρι τοῦ θερισμοῦ· καὶ ἐν καιρῷ τοῦ θερισμοῦ ἐρῶ τοῖς θερισταῖς· Συλλέξατε πρῶτον τὰ ζιζάνια καὶ δήσατε αὐτὰ εἰς δέσμας πρὸς τὸ κατακαῦσαι αὐτά, τὸν δὲ σῖτον συναγάγετε εἰς τὴν ἀποθήκην μου.

“But they do all their deeds in order to be noticed by men; for they broaden their phylacteries and lengthen the tassels of their garments.” (Matt 23:5)

Original Greek - 5 πάντα δὲ τὰ ἔργα αὐτῶν ποιοῦσιν πρὸς τὸ θεαθῆναι τοῖς ἀνθρώποις· πλατύνουσι [a]γὰρ τὰ φυλακτήρια αὐτῶν καὶ μεγαλύνουσι τὰ κράσπεδα,

“For when she poured this perfume on my body, she did it in order to prepare me for burial.” (Matt 26:12)

Original Greek - 12 βαλοῦσα γὰρ αὕτη τὸ μύρον τοῦτο ἐπὶ τοῦ σώματός μου πρὸς τὸ ἐνταφιάσαι με ἐποίησεν.

All from Matthew.

So, Matthew 5:27-28 can be either of the following from the definition of epithumesai(which is verb), something you do, the one making no sense is void.

Here we go,

"You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman in order to lust after her has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

Lust is a desire, not an action even diliberate lust isn't doing something, an action is something you do, whoever looks at a woman in order to, means in order to do something, do what? lust is an emotion, a desire, etc, not an action, so this definition is null and void. if Jesus Christ meant lusting after a woman was a sin, then He would have said, whoever looks at a woman AND lust, etc, but He said whoever looks at a woman IN ORDER TO, so it's to do something, added with epithumesai is a verb, an action.

Since pros to makes this an action,  whether you like it or not, lust long for, and set the heart upon definitions are out.

Now, the last definition would be Covet, lets see,

Matthew 5:27-28 - You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman in order to covet her has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

Added with the fact that the word for covet and woman/wife are the same in Exodus 20:17(Septuagint)

οὐκ ἐπιθυμήσεις τὴν γυναῖκα τοῦ πλησίον σου. οὐκ ἐπιθυμήσεις τὴν οἰκίαν τοῦ πλησίον σου οὔτε τὸν ἀγρὸν αὐτοῦ οὔτε τὸν παῖδα αὐτοῦ οὔτε τὴν παιδίσκην αὐτοῦ οὔτε τοῦ βοὸς αὐτοῦ οὔτε τοῦ ὑποζυγίου αὐτοῦ οὔτε παντὸς κτήνους αὐτοῦ οὔτε ὅσα τῷ πλησίον σού ἐστιν. (Ex 20:17 LXX)

Added with looks at a woman in order to.

The intent of the look for for a purpose, the purpose of what? in order to do what? and that in order to do is epithumesai(verb) her

So it should be rendered,

You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a wife(as same word for woman/wife is used in Septuagint version of 10th Commandment, we'll get to why it's wife instead of woman) with the intention(due to looking at a woman in order to epithumesai(verb) her) of taking her(stealing her from the husband or cheating with her due to 10th Commandment) has already committed adultery(Sex between married person and someone outside of relationship, aka cheating) with her in his heart.

So Jesus Christ is just retelling the law(Thou Shall Not Commit Adultery and 10th Commandment), He never added to The Law, The Law He originally gave at The Exodus was Fine.

Now with this fact, that covet is an action and not a desire and as proven by
Covet in The 10 Commandments means take.

why? read the link and the fact that The 8th Commandment "Thou Shall Not Steal" uses the word ganab which can mean Kidnap

God(The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit) gave commandments, prohibitions, on actions, which fits the entire context, desire is a natural thing that can BECOME sin, want proof?

James 1:15 - Then, after desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full-grown, gives birth to death.

He's simply talking about will, if you desire to Sin(Harm Someone, Read here ->

then it could cause you to do the sin(Sin means harm, read link/post above.

Therefore God(The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit) condemned slavery and sexually desiring a woman isn't a sin,

Proverbs 5:18-19 Let your fountain be blessed, and rejoice in the wife of your youth, a lovely deer, a graceful doe. Let her breasts fill you at all times with delight; be intoxicated always in her love

Song of Solomon 7:7-8

Your stature is like a palm tree, and your breasts are like its clusters. I say I will climb the palm tree and lay hold of its fruit. Oh may your breasts be like clusters of the vine, and the scent of your breath like apples,

Song of Solomon 8:10
I was a wall, and my breasts were like towers; then I was in his eyes as one who finds peace.

The True 10 Commandments are,

1, You shall have no other gods before Yahweh(The True God, The Trinity of The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit)
2, You shall not make for yourself an image in the form of anything in heaven above or on the earth beneath or in the waters below.
3, Remember the Sabbath day by keeping it holy
4, You shall not misuse the name of the Lord your God, for the Lord will not hold anyone guiltless who misuses his name.
5, Honor your father and your mother, so that you may live long in the land the Lord your God is giving you.
6, You shall not murder.
7, You shall not commit adultery.
8, You shall not Kidnap
9, You shall not give false testimony against your neighbor.
10, “You shall not take(steal) your neighbor’s house. You shall not take(steal) your neighbor’s wife, or his male or female servant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor.”

and Matthew 5:27-28 is, "You have heard that it was said, ‘Do not commit adultery.’ But I tell you that anyone who looks at a wife with the intention of taking her(stealing her from the husband or cheating with her) has already committed adultery with her in his heart."

Basically, Jesus Christ is saying, you know to not commit adultery, do not even plan or intend on taking(or cheating) with a woman, because it's as if you already did so.

Which fits well with The Rest of The Sermon of The Mount because remember,

Matthew 5:17 “Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. 18 For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth disappear, not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.

Jesus Christ never abolished or added any laws, The laws He gave at the exodus were fine.

For example on Oaths

Matthew 5:33 “Again, you have heard that it was said to the people long ago, ‘Do not break your oath, but fulfill to the Lord the vows you have made.’ 34 But I tell you, do not swear an oath at all: either by heaven, for it is God’s throne; 35 or by the earth, for it is his footstool; or by Jerusalem, for it is the city of the Great King. 36 And do not swear by your head, for you cannot make even one hair white or black. 37 All you need to say is simply ‘Yes’ or ‘No’; anything beyond this comes from the evil one.[g]

Jesus Christ was just telling us how to accomplish the law, so for adultery(cheating, unfaithfulness, can only be committed by a married person and someone else(aka cheating) He said don't even plan to do it(like King David remember)

But lets use The Very Orthodox Books themselves(Early Church Fathers how the early Church in 2ND CENTURY had this verse  to prove this,

"ἡ δὲ εὐαγγέλιος φωνὴ ἐπιτατικώτερον διδάσκει περὶ ἁγνείας λέγουσα· “Πᾶς ὁ ἰδὼν γυναῖκα ἀλλοτρίαν πρὸς τὸ ἐπιθυμῆσαι αὐτὴν ἤδη ἐμοίχευσεν αὐτὴν ἐν τῇ καρδίᾳ αὐτοῦ. καὶ ὁ γαμῶν”- Theophilus to Autolycus, B III, Ch 3

Key word? ἀλλοτρίαν which means, "belongeth to another"

Lust isn't a sin, Adultery is.

On other supposed verses on lust being sin,

I Peter 4:3

For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries

On this verse, the word translated to lust in the Greek is again epithumeo; a longing (especially for what is forbidden), which fits well in the context, because Peter would have condemned a specific sexual behavior as well, he didn't even mention sexual sins, so this is about the crazy drugged up, drunken lifestyle that is condemned.

Even Peter 1 4:2 The Previous verse confirms this, as the same word is used,

"so as to live the rest of the time in the flesh no longer for the lusts of men, but for the will of God."  Obviously sexual desire isn't being mentioned in that men but the desires of men, which is evil/harm, and that we should no longer live for the lusts of men(sin and evil) but for The Will of God(YHWH: The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit)

There ya go lust isn't a sin, even if you sexually desired a married woman it isn't a sin(only if you wanted to commit adultery is where you have sinned).

YHWH(The Father, and The Son, and The Holy Spirit) created sex, sexual desire, and physical beauty, so no it's not a sin to have good sexual fantasies, or to delight in a womans beauty, it's from YHWH.

What is sin would be harming or harmful fantasies , that has nothing to do with sex.

Proverbs 5:19 - A loving doe, a graceful deer-- may her breasts satisfy you always, may you ever be intoxicated with her love.

In Jesus Christ Name, God(YHWH: The Father and The Son(Jesus Christ) and The Holy Spirit) Bless.